Right, this isn't a rant, just more of a question about Chelsea's third goal last night. I haven't seen it shown on any of the replays, but I was certain that Lucas was crunched outside of our box, so the ref waved play on, only for us to give it straight away, I thought he was going to pull it back for a free kick but he didn't and Chelsea scored.
No sour grapes or anything, just wondering am I misunderstanding the rule? Did the ref play the advantage long enough? I'm never quite sure with this rule, how long do they play the advantage for?
No sour grapes or anything, just wondering am I misunderstanding the rule? Did the ref play the advantage long enough? I'm never quite sure with this rule, how long do they play the advantage for?