UK Contract Law : Tue May 08, 2012 4:29 pm
Can a wife (W) bind her husband (H) to a contract with a third party if she signs a contact in their joint names without his knowledge? I am assuming she can?What if the third party was made aware by W that H did not wish to pay for the services she contracted for on their behalf? Does it make any difference if the third party also knew that W had no independent source of income?
If she contracted in her own (rather than joint) name, presumably H is liable come what may?